And in the event of marriage between Mrs. Taylor and me I declare it to be my will and intention, and the condition of the engagement between us, that she retains in all respects whatever the same absolute freedom of action, and freedom of disposal of herself and of all that does or may at anytime belong to her, as if no such marriage had taken place; and I absolutely disclaim and repudiate all pretence to have acquired any rights whatever by virtue of any such marriage (1095).
Although I have never seen one, the portion reads like a prenuptial agreement. Mills is publicly renouncing any ties to Mrs. Taylor's property, however, I wonder if such a document would be legally acceptable in the event of a divorce. If the woman cannot legally enter into any agreement, would said contract then be null and void? I hope so, otherwise, there would be no respite for women at all. Marriage literally meant signing your life away! However, at that time women were property of their father's until they were given to another man in marriage. There really was no hope!
I agree that there was little hope for married women in society at that time. However, I think Mill's hope was that his example might influence other husbands to individually give their wives more rights than the law allowed.
ReplyDeleteDeborah,
ReplyDeleteI think asking whether Mill's statement had any legal force in his society is a good question to raise. I don't think it would have been. In the rest of your post, though, you don't really pursue the text very deeply in your discussion. You do quote a passage, but I don't see you doing much in the way of analysis of it.